I'm having trouble working with the definition of a quotient group. In particular I'm trying to find certain quotient groups $\mathbb{R}^+/P$, where $P$ is a subgroup of $(\mathbb{R}^+,\cdot)$. I looked at the most simple non-trivial subgroups, i.e. $P=\{a^n:n\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ for $a\ne 1$. Isn't it the case that for every $x\in\mathbb{R}^+$ which is not a power of $a$, the coset $xP$ contains the element $x$ and thus the quotient group just ends up containing all the positive real numbers? Also can one find a homomorphism on $\mathbb{R}^+$ with $\text{ker}f=P$ such that by the fundamental theorem of homomorphisms the quotient group $\mathbb{R}^+/P=\text{ran}f$?
EDIT: I think, I almost got it. Let w.l.o.g. $a>1$. So, for every $x\in\mathbb{R}^+$ you can choose some $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $xa^n\in[1,a)$ (since there exists unique $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, s.t. $x\in[a^{-n},a^{-n+1})$), hence the set $[1,a)$ is a set representing the cosets $xP$. We can define $f:\mathbb{R}^+\to[1,a)$ by setting $f(x)=xa^n$ for the unique $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $xa^n\in[1,a)$. Then since for every $x\in P$ the representative can be chosen to be $1$, we have $\text{ker}f= P$. I cannot prove that $f$ is a homomorphism. Is it true that $f$ is one? It seems, that this is the obvious choice for $f$.
Yes, you can find a group homomorphism $f$ defined on $(\Bbb R_{>0},\cdot)$ with $\ker(f)=P$. For simplicity first apply the group isomorphism $\ln:(\Bbb R_{>0},\cdot)\to(\Bbb R,+)$, then the group homomorphism $g:(\Bbb R,+)\to(\Bbb C,\cdot)$ with kernel generated by $\ln(a)$, namely $g:x\mapsto\exp(\frac{2\pi\mathbf i}{\ln(a)}x)$; then $f=g\circ\ln:x\mapsto g(\ln x)=\exp(2\pi\mathbf{i}\log_a(x))$ is a group homomorphism $(\Bbb R_{>0},\cdot)\to(\Bbb C,\cdot)$. Its kernel is $P$ and its image is the unit circle, which indeed models the quotient group you are interested in.