quotient map of locally compact spaces

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Suppose $X,Y$ are non-compact locally comapct Hausdorff spaces,suppose we have a quotient map $Q:X\to Y$,can we conclude that $Q$ is proper?

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No.

Let $X=\mathbb{R}^2$ and $Y=\mathbb{R}$.

Let $Q(x,y)=x$.

It is not proper as $Q^{-1}(0)\cong\mathbb{R}$.