It's known that $\mathbb{Z}[i] / (1+i) \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$.
I'm having difficulties with my attempt.
So we have $2 \in (1+i)$ since $2 = (1+i)\cdot(1-i)$. Thus $(2) \subset (1+i) \subset \mathbb{Z}[i]$. This looks like a third isomorphism problem so, $\mathbb{Z}[i]/(1+i) \cong (\mathbb{Z}[i]/(2)) / ((1+i)/(2))$. My problem comes from knowing what $(1+i)/(2)$ is. I know I have to get to this being isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2$ and I can see that $\mathbb{Z}[i]/(2) \cong \mathbb{Z}_2[i]$, but I dont know how to get the last reduction.
$\mathbb{Z}_2[i]\cong\mathbb{Z}[x]/(2,x^2+1)\cong\mathbb{Z}[x]/(2,x^2-1)\cong\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ (from the Chinese Remainder Theorem)
$(i+1)/(2)\cong\mathbb{Z}_2$, the last one becomes apparent when you write of the multiplication table. $i$ behaves just like $1$, and $i+1$ behaves just like $0$, so $i=1$. (It's perhaps easier to see this by noticing $i^2\equiv_2-1\equiv_2 1$)
So $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2/\mathbb{Z}_2\cong\mathbb{Z}_2$
There are however easier ways to prove that $\mathbb{Z}[i]/(i+1)\cong\mathbb{Z}_2$. Consider the map $\phi:\mathbb{Z}[i]\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_2$ such that $\phi(a+bi)=a+b$. We will show that the map is surjective and that $\ker(\phi)=(i+1)$, the rest will follow from the 1st isomorphism theorem: