Tao (Analysis I, 2022, p. 220):
Why can't Tao just assume $g(x_0)\neq 0$?
Wouldn't the conclusion still hold if we changed the assumption "$g$ is non-zero on $X$" to "$g(x_0)\neq 0$"?
In contrast, Bartle & Sherbert (2011, Introduction to Real Analysis, p. 163f):
Why do Bartle & Sherbert use the assumption $g(c)\neq0$ (as I'd expect) but Tao doesn't?




Answer: For the question to make sense! If there is some point in the domain where $g$ is zero, then what does $\frac{f}{g}$ even mean at that point? How do you define $\frac{f}{g}$ at a point where $g$ is zero?
He could actually omit this restriction, since it is implicit when we even mention $\frac{f}{g}$