I'm working on the following question in preparation for my exam.
Derive the Laurent series of $$ f(z)=\frac{e^z}{(z+1)^2} $$ around $z=-1$. What is the radius of convergence?
I got the Laurent series easy enough:
For $$ a_n = \frac{f^{(n)}(-1)}{n!} $$ Let $$ f(z)=e^z \Rightarrow f^{(n)}(z)=e^z \Rightarrow a_n =\frac{1}{e n!} \\ \Rightarrow e^z= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(z+1)^n}{e n!} $$
So, $$ \frac{e^z}{(z+1)^2} = (z+1)^{-2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(z+1)^n}{e n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(z+1)^{n-2}}{e n!} $$
I'm generally confused on how to determine the radius of convergence for complex series. Is the following work correct? If not, why?
Using the ratio test, $$ \left| \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} \right| = \left| \frac{\frac{1}{e(n+1)!}}{\frac{1}{en!}} \right| = \left| \frac{n!}{(n+1)!} \right| \\ \Rightarrow \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \frac{n!}{(n+1)!} = 0$$
Therefore, the radius of convergence is $0$, implying that the series converges to a single point. Is this point $z=-1$?
Thanks!
A Laurent series in a variable $w$ typically converges on an annulus $\{w:r<|w|<R\}$. In this case, $w=z+1$, and the Laurent series converges everywhere save for $w=0$: in this case then $r=0$ and $R=\infty$.