In "Ireland and Rosen" page 35, it says if $R_1, R_2, ..., R_n$ are rings, then
$R_1 \oplus R_2 \oplus \dots \oplus R_n = S$ is the direct sum of the $R_i$.
Later in a proposition it says if $S = R_1 \oplus R_2 \oplus \dots \oplus R_n$,
then the group of units $U(S) = U(R_1) \times \dots \times U(R_n)$.
I would appreciate help understanding why in the first instance $S$ is expressed as a direct sum, and the group of units (over the same set of $R_i$) is expressed as a direct product. Thanks
It is standard to use $\oplus$ for the biproduct of modules. (aside: for infinite products of modules, $\oplus$ is interpreted as the coproduct)
If the modules $M$ and $N$ have an algebra structure, then they induce a canonical algebra structure on their direct sum $M \oplus N$.
It is standard, but strange, notation to write $R \oplus S$ for the algebra constructed by forgetting the algebra structure on $R$ and $S$, taking the direct sum of the modules, and then putting the canonical algebra structure back on the direct sum. I really don't understand why this notation is used, since it is rather misleading, as it is very much not the coproduct of the rings. (although it is their product)