Let $n \in \Bbb{N}, n \gt 1$. Let $\Bbb{P} = $ the prime numbers in $\Bbb{N}$. Define \begin{align*} A_n &= \{ (p,q) \in \Bbb{P}^2 : p + q = 2n\}, \\ B_n &= \{ (p, q) : p - q = 2n \}. \end{align*}
I conjecture the only way to reach higher sets is to union the partitions of lower sets in this way: $$A_n = \bigcup_{k=1}^{n-1} B_{n-k} \circ A_k,$$ where $\circ$ is relational composition.
This comes from the fact that if $(q, p) \in A_k$ and $(r, q) \in B_{n-k}$ then $(p, r) \in A_n$ necessarily.
Do you think this is true?
You are asking whether the following is true for any integer $n>1$ and any primes $p,q$: \begin{multline*} p+q = 2n \iff \text{there exists an integer $1\le k\le n-1$ and a prime $\ell$ such that } \\ p-\ell = 2(n-k) \text{ and } \ell+q = 2k. \end{multline*} As you point out, the $\Longleftarrow$ direction is straightforward. The $\Longrightarrow$ direction is easy as long as $p\ge5$: just take $\ell=3$ and $k=(q+3)/2$, so that $p-\ell=(2n-q)-3=2n-2k$, for example. However, it fails when $p=3$, since there is no smaller odd prime to choose for $\ell$. (It also fails when $n=2$.)