Suppose we have the following optimization problem:
$$\min_{x_1, x_2} x_1+x_2+x_1x_2$$ s.t. $$x_1^2+x_2^2 = 1$$
The assignment is to solve this with the concept of duality.
So when I write out the dual function
$$ \min_{x_1, x_2} x_1+x_2+x_1x_2+\lambda(x_1^2+x_2^2-1)$$, I can get the derivative wrt $x_1=x_2=x$ and then substitute to get the dual function as:
$$D(\lambda) = -1-3\lambda-\lambda^2$$
maximizing this over $\lambda$, I get $\lambda = -\frac{3}{2}$ as the solution to the dual problem.
But when I check this, it says that the dual function is unbounded below when $\lambda$ is less than $\frac{1}{2}$.
In my understanding, this means that the dual function is:
for $\lambda \ge\frac{1}{2}: D(\lambda) = -1-3\lambda-\lambda^2$
for $\lambda < \frac{1}{2}: D(\lambda) = -\infty $
But how can we recognize that the dual function is unbounded below when $\lambda$ is less than $\frac{1}{2}$ ?
The lagrange function is $$L(x_1,x_2,\lambda)=x_1+x_2+x_1x_2+\lambda(x_1^2+x_2^2-1).$$ We minimize it by taking derivative w.r.t. $x_1$ and $x_2$.
$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_1}=1+x_2+2\lambda x_1=0$$ and $$\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_2}=1+x_1+2\lambda x_2=0$$
On solving, we get $$x_1=x_2=\frac{-1}{1+2\lambda}.$$
Thus, the dual is $$\max_{\lambda} D(\lambda)= \max_{\lambda}\Big\{-\frac{1}{1+2\lambda}-\lambda\Big\},$$ where $\lambda\neq -\frac{1}{2}.$
Case 1: When $\lambda>\frac{1}{2}$, $$-\frac{1}{1+2\lambda}<0\text{ and }-\lambda<-\frac{1}{2}.$$
Hence, $D(\lambda)<-\frac{1}{2}$. So $D(\lambda)$ is bounded above.
Case 2: When $\lambda<\frac{1}{2}$, as $\lambda\rightarrow -\infty$, $$-\frac{1}{1+2\lambda} \rightarrow 0\text{ and }-\lambda\rightarrow \infty.$$ In this case, $D(\lambda)$ is unbounded.