Let $$D_n = \frac{1}{b-a}((a^nb-ab^n)(a+b)+(b^n-a^n)(a^2+ab+b^2))$$
where $a≠b$.
Find $D_n$ if $a=b$ in terms of $a$ and $n$.
I had to solve a recurrence relation to end up with the above answer and the hint for this part is to let $b$ in my answer tend to $a$.
However, doesn't the function become undefined in such a case?
Any fast responses will be greatly appreciated, as I have to submit this in 30 minutes ):
Thanks in advance!
HINT
If you multiply out the numerator and simplify, you get $$ (a^nb-ab^n)(a+b)+(b^n-a^n)(a^2+ab+b^2) = b^{n+2} - a^{n+2} $$ Can you factor out $(a-b)$ or $(b-a)$ from that?
UPDATE
You have $$ \begin{split} (a^nb-ab^n)&(a+b)+(b^n-a^n)(a^2+ab+b^2) \\ &= \left[a^{n+1}b + a^nb^2 -a^2b^n - ab^{n+1}\right]\\ &+ \left[a^2b^n - a^{n+2} + ab^{n+1} - a^{n+1}b + b^{n+2} - a^nb^2 \right] \\ &= b^{n+2}-a^{n+2} \end{split} $$