My understanding of a simple k-vector is that it is the wedge product of k vectors.
Also, two simple k-vectors are the same, when their magnitude, attitude and orientation match. Now my question is, could I just define a simple k-vector in this way? Meaning "a simple k-vector is an equivalence class of ordered k-tuple of vectors. Two tuples are equivalent if their attitudes and orientation match, and if the parallelograms they span attain the same magnitude."
Especially a reference where this is stated would be greatly appreciated! I feel like I have read something like this somewhere, but I cannot find it anymore.
I am only using k-vectors for something I am writing for university and having to explain the wedge product would deviate from my topic a little. That's why I am trying to avoid this definition.
Yes, this works, though I'm not sure you'll find any reference.
(I assume we're talking about the Euclidean case. This fails in general since we can have nonzero $k$-vectors which have a "magnitude" of zero.)
What you mean by orientation of a $k$-vector is two things: the subspace represented by the $k$-vector and the "orientation" as described by an ordered basis. Define the (squared) $k$-vector magnitude $M(v_1,\dotsc,v_k)$ of vectors $v_1,\dotsc,v_k$ by $$ M(v_1,\dotsc,v_k) = \det\Bigl(v_i\cdot v_j\Bigr)_{i,j=1}^k. $$ For example, with $k=3$ we have $$ M(v_1,v_2,v_3) = \det\begin{pmatrix} v_1\cdot v_1&v_1\cdot v_2&v_1\cdot v_3 \\ v_2\cdot v_1&v_2\cdot v_2&v_2\cdot v_3 \\ v_3\cdot v_1&v_3\cdot v_2&v_3\cdot v_3 \end{pmatrix}. $$
The theorem you are interested in can be stated as follows:
The restriction to linearly independent tuples is crucial (though we could add the stipulation that any two linearly dependent tuples are equivalent).
I will sketch a proof that equivalence of tuples implies equality of $k$-vectors. First note that $$ \mathrm{span}\{v_1,\dotsc,v_k\} = \{v \;:\; v\wedge v_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge v_k = 0\}. $$ Additionally, for any $k$-vector $X$, if $v\wedge X = 0$ then we can factor $X = v\wedge Y$ for some $(k-1)$-vector $Y$. Inducting on $k$, this shows that there is a scalar $\alpha$ such that $$ v_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge v_k = \alpha w_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge w_k. \tag{$*$} $$ Let $$ S = \mathrm{span}\{v_1,\dotsc,v_k\} = \mathrm{span}\{w_1,\dotsc,w_k\}. $$ The subalgebra generated by $S$ of the exterior algebra is naturally isomorphic to the exterior algebra of $S$, so conflate the two and consider the outermorphism of $T_\wedge$ of $T$. Then $$ w_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge w_k = T_\wedge(v_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge v_k) = (\det T)v_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge v_k = \alpha(\det T)w_1\wedge\dotsb\wedge w_k $$ so $1 = \alpha(\det T)$ and thus $\alpha > 0$. Finally, take the magnitude of both sides of ($*$) to get $$ M(v_1,\dotsc,v_k) = \alpha^2M(w_1,\dotsc,w_k) \implies 1 = \alpha^2. $$ Because of the Euclidean assumption we know that these magnitudes are nonzero, so $\alpha = 1$ and this completes the proof.