Statement $1$: At point of inflection $\dfrac{dy}{dx}=0$ or doesn't exist.
Statement $2$: If a function is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing at some point and $\dfrac{dy}{dx}=0$ at that point, then that point is point of inflection.
Comment on the correctness of these statements, give examples to support your claim.
My attempt is as follows:-
Statement $1$: At point of inflection $\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}=0$ or doesn't exist. But we can't say anything about $\dfrac{dy}{dx}$.
$$f(x)=x^3-3x^2+2x-1$$ $$f'(x)=3x^2-6x+2$$ $$f''(x)=6x-6$$ $f''(x)=0$ at $x=1$ and concavity of $f(x)$ changes at $x=1$ but $f'(1)=3+2-6=-1$
Statement $2$:
Suppose if the function is strictly increasing and $\dfrac{dy}{dx}=0$ at $x=x_0$ then $f(x_0-h)<f(x_0)<f(x_0+h)$ and $\dfrac{dy}{dx}>0$ in the neighborhood.
But from this information I am not getting how to prove that $x_0$ is the point of inflection.
Consider $$g(x)=\begin{cases}|x\sin\frac1x|&x\ne 0\\0&x=0\end{cases} $$ and let $f(x)=\int_0^xg(t)\,\mathrm dt$.
We conclude that $0$ is not a point of inflection for $f$.