Regarding the Schwarz Reflection Principle, is getting the analyticity of f(z) on the real axis a consequence of the theorem itself,

Question

or a consequence of Morera's Theorem?

Basically, I want to be able to cite it correctly, e.g., can I say we have not only continuity of f(z) along $R$ (by assumption) but also it turns out that $f(z)$ is also analytic along $R$ -- because of the Schwarz Reflection Principle.

Or do I say that we get the analyticity by Morera's Theorem?

Thanks,