The divergent series $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\log n$$ can be regularized using the derivative of the Riemann zeta function at $s=0$:
$$-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}s}\zeta(s)=-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}s}\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-s}=-\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}s}n^{-s}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-s}\log n$$
This yields $\frac{1}{2}\log(2\pi)$ as the answer. Is it possible to regularize the series $$\sum_{n=2}^\infty\log\log n$$ in a similar manner?
How about this: $$ f(s)=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}e^{-s (\log n + \log\log n)}=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}(n\log n)^{-s}, $$ so $$ f'(s)=-\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}(\log n + \log\log n)e^{-s(\log n + \log \log n)}, $$ and $$ \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\log \log n = -f'(0) + \zeta'(0) = -f'(0)-\frac{1}{2}\log(2\pi). $$ Certainly $f(s)$ is analytic for $\Re(s)> 1$, so the question is just whether it can be analytically continued to $s=0$.