imagine we get $ f(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n} $
and $ g(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{a(n)}{n!}x^{n} $
then if i know $ g(x)$ i can get $ f(x) $ using laplace transform but what if i know only the value of $ f(x) $ ??
imagine we get $ f(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n} $
and $ g(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{a(n)}{n!}x^{n} $
then if i know $ g(x)$ i can get $ f(x) $ using laplace transform but what if i know only the value of $ f(x) $ ??
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