I have two real value matrices: $A \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n}$ and $B \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times p}$. If I know which are the eigenvalues of $A^{\top}BB^{\top}A$, what can I say about the eigenvalues of $B^{\top}AA^{\top}B$?
I suspect that they coincide and that the extra eigenvalues are zeroes since this is what happens with the eigenvalues of $A^{\top}A$ and $AA^{\top}$.
Is this correct? I will do some tests with Octave now.
Update: the Octave results for a random $10 \times 10$ and a random $10 \times 20$ matrix seem to confirm my claim. Try it yourself:
m = 10, n = 10, p = 20;
A=rand(m, n);
B=rand(m, p);
eig(A'*B*B'*A)
eig(B'*A*A'*B)
Yes you are correct,
if you set $C=A^TB$ and $C^{T}=B^TA$.
Suppose that $CC^{T}$ is n x n matrix, and $C^{T}C$ is an m x m matrix, and the $n \geq m$.
If $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue for $CC^{T}$, where $\lambda$ is non-zero, then we have:
$CC^{T}x=\lambda x$, multiplying by $C^{T}$, we get : $C^{T}C(C^{T}x)=\lambda(C^{T}x)$.
Therefore, if $\lambda$ is a non-zero eigenvalue for $CC^{T}$, then $C^{T}C$ has the same eigenvalue too.
Observe, that this holds for any matrices A,B ie, they need not be transposes of each other.