Let $R$ be a ring with $1$, and $I$ and ideal of $R$. Let $P$ be a prime ideal of $I$. Is it true that $rad(I/P) \subseteq rad(R/P)$? I am really confused if this inclusion is true or not.
2026-03-28 15:20:24.1774711224
Relation between Jacobson radical of an ideal and the jacobson radical of the ring
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