If $f(x) \sim g(x)$ have a relative error $\sim h(x)$, is it always true that $\ln f(x)$ and $\ln g(x)$ have an absolute error that it also $\sim h(x)$?
For instance, $\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^x \sim e$ with relative error $\sim -\frac{1}{2x}$, and after we take the natural log of each side, the absolute error between $x\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)$ and $1$ is also $\sim -\frac{1}{2x}$.
Suppose that $A$ is the true value of a quantity and $B$ an approximate value of the same quantity. So, the relative error is $$R_1=\left|\frac{A-B}A\right|$$ Now, consider $$R_2=\log(B)-\log(A)=\log\left(\frac BA\right)=\log\left(\frac{A+B-A} A\right)=\log\left(1+\frac{B-A} A\right)$$ Now, remember that when $x$ is small compared to $1$, $\log(1+x)\sim x$. So, if $\frac{B-A} A$ is small compared to $1$, then $$R_2 \sim \frac{B-A} A\implies |R_2| \sim |R_1|$$