Suppose $ A \vdash B$
where $A$ is of the form $\forall x\ P(x) \rightarrow \ ... $
and where $B$ does not include the predicate $P$.
My intuition is that this implies that $B$ is a tautology, as in :
$ \vdash B$
But unfortunately I lack the proof-theoretic background to determine exactly why. I can think of an argument involving resolution-proofs, but that requires that the logic we're dealing with is Classical First-Order-Logic, and I was hoping that the result could be shown for a more general case.
Appreciate if anyone has any thoughts... Thanks!
We have a related result, the Craig interpolation theorem.
Thus, under what condition we have that $\alpha$ is unsatisfiable, when it has the form $\forall x Px \to C$ ?
But we can always find some interpretation where $Px$ does not hold of every objects. Thus, we can always find some interpretation where $\forall x Px \to C$ is a conditional with False antecedent, i.e. such that the formula is True.