I am reading a book on $p$-adic analysis and am currently stuck at the proof of the following theorem:
Theorem The $p$-adic logarithm satisfies the fundamental property $$\ln_p(xy) = \ln_p(x) + \ln_p(y)$$
As a reminder: the $p$-adic logarithm is defined as $$\ln_p(x) = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty (-1)^{n + 1} \frac{(x-1)^n}n$$
The proof they give is the following:
The following identity $$\log(1 + X) + \log(1 + Y) - \log(1 + X + Y + XY) = 0$$ holds for formal power series. One can check directly (by expanding and reordering terms) that all coefficients of the resulting series reduce to zero.
Where $\log(1 + X)$ is defined as $$\log(1 + X) = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty (-1)^{n + 1} \frac{X^n}n$$
I understand that you must be able to rearrange the above equation/series to get zero, as the identity can be proven through other ways. However, I'm a bit confused as to what specific reordering they are referring to here. I've tried developing the partial sums till $n = 4$ but wasn't able to find anything interesting.
I agree that kind of "formal to numerical" reasoning is dubious. What book are you reading that in?
A different proof, based on differentiation and recentering of $p$-adic power series, is Theorem 8.5 here.