Rephrasing the "if" part of the statement of the Principle of Uniform Boundedness

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I am trying to better and more rigorously understand the Principle of Uniform Boundedness (PUB). Recall that the statement of PUB reads:

Let $X,Y$ be Banach Spaces and suppose that $(T_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}\subset\mathcal B(X,Y)$. If for every $x\in X$ it follows that $\sup_{n\in\mathbb N}\|T_nx\|<\infty$, then $\sup_{n\in\mathbb N}\|T_n\|<\infty$.

Consider, in particular, the part which reads "... for every $x\in X$ it follows that $\sup_{n\in\mathbb N}\|T_nx\|<\infty$ ...". Now this precisely means that, $$\forall x\in X,\,\sup\{\|T_nx\|:n\in\mathbb N\}<\infty,$$ which is equivalent to the statement that, $$\forall x\in X,\,\exists M\in\mathbb R_{\ge0}\,\forall\, n\in\mathbb N:\|T_nx\|\le M.$$ My question: how, exactly, is this equivalent to the statement that, $$\forall x\in X:\|x\|\le1,\,\exists M\in\mathbb R_{\ge0}\,\forall\, n\in\mathbb N:\|T_nx\|\le M?$$ Note that the set of those $x\in X:\|x\|\le1$ is precisely the ball in $X$ centered at $0_X$ of radius $1$. I think I am close in making the connection, and I am convinced that it is to do with the fact that the operator norm can be defined as, $$\|T\|=\sup\{\|Tx\|:\|x\|\le1\},$$ but I am not sure how I should deal with the quantifiers that slipping this definition into the above brings with it. Can anybody indicate or highlight how the equivalence should be drawn out?

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One implication is trivial since if we can find an $M$ for every $x$ then we can certainly find an $M$ for every $x$ satisfying $\|x\| \leq 1$.

For the non-trivial implication, pick an arbitrary $x \in X$. Then $y = \frac{x}{\|x\|}$ satisfies $\|y\| = 1$ and so there is an $N$ such that $$\sup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \|T_n y \| \leq N.$$ However, $\|T_ny\| = \frac{1}{\|x\|} \|T_nx\|$ and so, setting $M = N \|x\|$, we get $$\sup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \|T_n x \| \leq M$$ as desired.