Proposition: Let
$$\tag 1 f(x,y) = (a_1x+b_1y+c_1)^{2} + (a_2x+b_2y+c_2)^{2} + (a_3x+b_3y+c_3)^{2}$$
Then there exist numbers $\hat a_1,\hat b_1, \hat c_1,\hat a_2,\hat b_2, \hat c_2$ such that
$$\tag 2 f(x,y) = (\hat a_1x+\hat b_1y+\hat c_1)^{2} + (\hat a_2x+\hat b_2y+\hat c_2)^{2} $$
My work
I was trying to prove this after studying
Minimize this real function on $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ without calculus?
I tried to develop some theory but decided to seek help.
In the same spirit as the motivating question, please show me an algebra-precalculus proof.
I've been left with 'egg on my face' before, so the proposition might not even be true. If it isn't, any answers would have to impose further assumptions/constraints.
Easy example: set up the coefficients so that your positive polynomial is $$ x^2 + y^2 + 1 $$ This is not the sum of two squares, by Sylvester's Law of Inertia
I don't believe that to be possible in general. This would take forever to typeset: