This is an example of using the residue theorem to solve improper integrals. My question is how the πi term came about, because my understanding is $\int_{C{_R}}1/z dz=2 πi$ and not πi. Sorry I must be missing something simple here
2026-03-27 17:59:49.1774634389
Residue theorem to solve improper integrals
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$\Gamma_R$ is surely a semi-circle, so we just pick up $i\pi$.