Is this derivation correct? If $R=0$, $R$ being the scalar curvature, then: $$R_{;k}=0$$ $$(g^{ac}g^{bd}R_{abcd})_{;k}=0$$ $$g^{ac}g^{bd}(R_{abcd})_{;k}=0$$ $$R_{abcd;k}=0$$
2026-04-01 19:23:50.1775071430
Ricci scalar algebra
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