When proofing the Riemann mapping theorem that every simply connected domain $\mathbb{C} \neq D \subset \mathbb{C}$ is conformal equivalent to the unit disk $\mathbb{D}$, we can construct a Möbius transformation $g$ that maps $D$ to a bounded simply connected domain $T \subset \mathbb{D}$. Then we can construct a conformal mapping $h$ that maps $T$ onto $\mathbb{D}$.
In the textbook I'm reading they use a rotation $\theta : \mathbb{D} \rightarrow \mathbb{D}$ around $0$ afterwards and say that the function $\theta \circ h \circ g$ is the seeked conformal map from $D$ onto $\mathbb{D}$.
Why do we need the rotation $\theta$ afterwards? Is the function $h \circ g$ not already the conformal map we are looking for?
The riemann mapping theorem is as follows
You can extend the theorem by the following:
That means that $f'(z_0)$ is real and positive. There is a theorem that holds that then there are two conformal mappings $h, \hat h:D \rightarrow G$ with $b \in D$ such that $h(b) = \hat h(b) = 0$. Is $h'(b)/\hat h'(b) > 0$ then $h = \hat h$.
So if you look at the conformal mapping $h \circ g$ where $g$ maps $D$ to a simply connected and bounded domain $\subset \mathbb{D}$ and $h$ expands $g(D)$ conformally to $\mathbb{D}$.
Using a rotation $\theta : \mathbb{D} \rightarrow \mathbb{D}$ around $0$ makes the conformal map $\theta \circ h \circ g$ unique.