Could somebody please clarify the following for me?
I am not too clear about the relationship between the Riemann sphere and Möbius maps. I know that we can through projection make some Möbius maps correspond to isometries of the sphere. But it is not a bijection right? Which maps have corresponding isometries and which don't, vice versa?
Thanks
Möbius maps $(az+b)/(cz+d)$ with $ad-bc\ne 0$ are 1-1 onto maps of the Riemann sphere. You need to add infinity to the plane to get a statement this simple.