The standard derivation for $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\sin(x)$ involves using the fact that
$$\lim_{\Delta x \to 0}\frac{\cos(\Delta x)-1}{\Delta x}=0$$
It's trivial to show that
$$\lim_{\theta\to 0} \cos(\theta)-1= 0$$
but the first limit doesn't follow directly from the second without a bit more work to handle the division.
How can we make this more rigorous?
notice that
$$ \frac{\cos x - 1 }{x} \cdot \frac{\cos x + 1 }{\cos x + 1 } = \frac{\cos^2 x - 1}{x(\cos x + 1 )} = - \frac{ \sin x \cdot \sin x }{x (\cos x + 1)}$$
The rest is history