Risk free interest and integral setup

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This question is from a past examn

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A very simple question im wondering why we would use an integral for I in the line after the graph?

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If you are asking why you have $$\int_{I_0}^{I(t)} \frac{dI}I = \int_0^t r(\tilde t)\,d\tilde t$$ as opposed to $$I=\int_0^t r(\tilde t)\,d \tilde t$$ it's because interest is compounded continuously, in which case the amount of money $I$ in the account changes at a(n interest) rate proportional to $I$, i.e. $\frac{dI}{dt}=rI$. Separate variables, then integrate.