Assume I have an equation
$$a(f(x))^2+bf(x)+c=0.$$ I am required to find the roots of the equation.
When I solve this equation I will obtain a value of $x$, say $p$ and that value of $x$ will give me a value of $f(x)$, say $q$ (i.e. $f(p)=q$). So my doubt is whether $p$ will be called as the root of the equation or is it $q$ that is the root of the equation?
I know my doubt is very silly but please forgive me. I am not that good at math. Thanks a lot for bearing with me and helping me.
Let's define a polynomial $p(x) = ax^2+bx+c$. You need to solve $$ \tag{1} p(f(x)) = 0. $$
To do that, as you correctly note, you first find the roots of $p(x)$, say $p_+$ and $p_-$, so that $p(p_+) = 0 = p(p_-)$, and then solve $f(x) = p_+$ and $f(x) = p_-$, obtaining some solutions, say $x^*$. These final solutions $x^*$ will be solutions of (1) and roots of $p(f(x))$.
UPDATE
Not sure how a function can be a root of itself. If you mean $p_-$ or $p_+$, then indeed, they are the roots of $p$, so $p(p_+) = p(p_-) = 0$, but they are not necessarily the roots of $p(f(x))$.
For example, let $p(x) = x^2-16x+64 = (x-8)^2$ and $f(x) = x^3$. Note that:
UPDATE 2
Let's take another particular case and consider $p(x) = (x-1)^2$ and $f(x) = \tan x$. Then, to solve $$\tag{2} (\tan x - 1)^2 = 0$$ you:
Thus, roots of (2) are the numbers $(x_n)_{n=-\infty}^\infty$.