In the following trigonometric equation
$$1 + \alpha^2 \cos^2 (n \theta) = 0$$
The complex solutions are
$$\cos (n \theta) = \pm i/\alpha$$
So I thought that the corresponding angles were,
$$n \theta = \arccos (i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$
$$n \theta = 2\pi - \arccos (i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$
and,
$$n \theta = \arccos (-i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$
$$n \theta = 2\pi - \arccos (-i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$
as usual in trigonometric equations containing cosine. But instead the solutions should be:
$$n \theta = \arccos (i/\alpha) + k\pi$$
and,
$$n \theta = \arccos (-i/\alpha) + k\pi$$
Why?
Note that $\arccos(z) = \pi - \arccos(-z)$.
So $$\arccos(i/\alpha) + (2k-1)\pi = - \arccos(-i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$ and $$\arccos(-i/\alpha) + (2k-1)\pi = - \arccos(i/\alpha) + 2k\pi$$ Thus these are just two different ways of writing the same set of solutions.