I don’t understand how does the inequality $(3)$ shows that the mapping $f$ $\to$ $f(x)$ is a bounded linear functional on $M$, of norm 1 ?
Any help would be appreciated.
2026-03-26 00:53:44.1774486424
Rudin's RCA $5.22$ - An Abstract Approach to the Poisson Integral.
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This is completely obvious. Ask yourself what $|g+ir|^2$ is equal to (by definition). Likewise, what is $|\alpha+i(\beta+r)|^2$ equal to? Therefore…