I am trying to prove that if $A \subset S^1$ is a deformation retract of $S^1$, then $A=S^1$.
$A$ being a deformation retract of $S^1$ means that there exists a continuous map $r \colon S^1 \to A$ such that $r\circ i = id_A$ and $i \circ r \simeq id_{S^1}$, where $i$ is the inclusion. As $i \circ r \simeq id_{S^1}$, there exists a continuous map $H \colon S^1 \times I \to S^1$ such that $H((x,y),0)=(x,y)$ and $H((x,y),1)=i\circ r (x,y)$ for all $(x,y) \in S^1$. I am trying to prove that $i \circ r(x,y) =(x,y)$, or, equivalently, that $f=id_{S^1}$, where $$\begin{aligned}[t]f \colon S^1 &\longrightarrow S^1 \\ (x,y) &\longmapsto f(x,y)=H((x,y),1) \end{aligned}$$ This would imply $A=S^1$ (as $r \colon S^1 \to A$ would be a homeomorphism) but I have not been able to show that $f=id_{S^1}$, so it is possible that $f=id_{S^1}$ is not necessarily true in the first place. I would appreciate any hints on that.
Hint number $1$: consider that if $A\neq S^1$ then $i_\ast:\pi_1(A)\to\pi_1(S^1)$ factors as $\pi_1(A)\to\pi_1(S^1\setminus\{\zeta\})\to\pi_1(S^1)$.
Hint number $2$: use instead the classification of connected subsets of $\Bbb R$ to realise that all retracts of $S^1$ are subarcs or the whole circle itself. Can $S^1$ deform onto a subarc? You'll probably need knowledge of $\pi_1(S^1)$ or similar technology to answer that.