I am going through a proof in Reed & Simon's book on functional analysis that states a space $S$ is compact if every net in $S$ has a convergent subnet. Their proof is:
Suppose that every net has a convergent subnet and let $\mathcal{U}$ be an open cover. Let us suppose that $\mathcal{U}$ has no finite subcover and derive a contradiction. Order the finite subfamilies $\mathcal{G}$ of $\mathcal{U}$ by inclusion; $\mathcal{G}$ is thereby a directed set. For each $\mathcal{F} = \{F_1, \ldots, F_m\} \in \mathcal{G}$, pick $x_\mathcal{F} \not\in \bigcup_{i=1}^m F_i$. By assumption, the net $x_\mathcal{F}$ has a cluster point $x$. Since $\mathcal{U}$ is a cover, we can find $U \in \mathcal{U}$ with $x \in U$. Since $x_{\mathcal{F}}$ is frequently in $U$ we can find a finite subfamily $\mathscr{G} \in \mathcal{G}$ so that $\{U\}\prec \mathscr{G}$ and $x_\mathscr{G} \in U$. Since $\{U\} \prec \mathscr{G}$, $U \subset \bigcup_{G \in \mathscr{G}} G$, and so $x_{\mathscr{G}} \in \bigcup_{G \in \mathscr{G}} G$, which is a contradiction.
I have a few questions about this proof which has been causing me some trouble.
- How does the assumption that every net has a convergent subnet imply that the net $\{x_\mathcal{F}\}$ has a cluster point $x$? Or does this follow from some other assumption?
- I am confused on what is going on in the step where they say:
Since $x_{\mathcal{F}}$ is frequently in $U$ we can find a finite subfamily $\mathscr{G} \in \mathcal{G}$ so that $\{U\}\prec \mathscr{G}$ and $x_\mathscr{G} \in U$.
Are they finding a subnet of $\{x_\mathcal{F}\}$, denoted $\{x_{\mathscr{G}}\}$, whose limit point we know exists by assumption and which we call $x_\mathscr{G}$?
- Where is the contradiction?