Why does it not satisfy $P_2$ or $P_3$? $i$ isn't equal to $f(i)$.
2026-03-02 05:19:58.1772428798
Satisfying P_i for mappings onto a function
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It does not satisfy $P_2$, because there exist $j = 1$ such that $f(j) = f(1) = 2$
The fact that $f(2) \neq 2$ is irrelevant to this property