I found that
$$ \int f(t + x) g(x) dx = f \ast g^{-} (t), $$
where $g^{-}(x) = g(-x)$.
My question is that following integral
$$ \int f(t + \lambda x) g(x) dx, ~~~ \lambda \in (0, 1) $$
can be expressed in terms of convolution.
Thanks in advance.
I found that
$$ \int f(t + x) g(x) dx = f \ast g^{-} (t), $$
where $g^{-}(x) = g(-x)$.
My question is that following integral
$$ \int f(t + \lambda x) g(x) dx, ~~~ \lambda \in (0, 1) $$
can be expressed in terms of convolution.
Thanks in advance.
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