I am currently studying series and using the comparison test to determine whether or not a series converges.
Is this an acceptable proof using the comparison test? (I have generalised a and b)
If we know that $a<b$ ($a$ and $b$ are functions of $i$)
$$\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{a}{b} < \sum_{i=1}^\infty\frac{b}{b} = 1 $$
Now since a series larger than a/b converges, using the comparison test we can say that the sequence a/b converges?
Thanks in regards.
$\sum_{i=1}^\infty\frac bb=\sum_{i=1}^\infty1$ obviously does not converge, so the comparison test cannot be used in this way.