It says in a book I'm reading on topology that if $\mathit{R}$ is an equivalence relation on a space $X$, $p$ is the collapsing map $x \mapsto [x]$ and $A \subseteq X$ then:
$$x \in A, y \mathit{R}x \Rightarrow y\in A$$ is the same as: $$A=p^{-1}(p(A))$$
And that the proof is easy. But, whilst seeing that it's fairly obvious, I'm having trouble coming up with a proof that doesn't get quite wordy. Can anyone help?
By definition, $A \subset p^{-1}[p[A]]$ for any $A$, so the other implication is the interesting one.
Suppose $A$ satisfies the first closure under $R$ condition. Let $z$ be in $p^{-1}[p[A]]$, which means by definition that $p(z) \in p[A]$, or there exists $a \in A$ such that $p(z) = p(a)$. As $p$ is the collapsing map, this just means that $zRa$, i.e. they define the same class. Now apply the condition (with $x = a, y = z$) to conclude that indeed $z \in A$ and we are done.
If $A = p^{-1}[p[A]]$, let $x \in A$ and $y \in X$ be such that $yRx$. Now $p(y) = p(x)$ by the last, and $p(x) \in p[A]$, so $y \in p^{-1}[p[A]] = A$, and so we are done.
The basis idea is that $p(x) = p(y)$ iff $yRx$, and then applying the definitions.