Problem: Suppose that $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ has Lipschitz constant $1$. Is it true that the set of fixed points of $f$ is convex?
My attempt: I managed to show that if $x,y$ are two fixed points of $f$ and $z = (1-\lambda)x+\lambda y$ for $\lambda \in (0,1)$, then $||f(z)-x||=||z-x||$ and $||f(z)-y||=||z-y||$. But I'm not quite sure what to do after this. Is there any hint or suggestion?
So $f(z)$ is on the sphere around $x$ passing through $z$, and is also on the sphere around $y$ passing through $z$. These two spheres "kiss" at $z$ so that $f(z)$ must be $z$.