I know that between any two reals, there is an irrational number.
See: Proving that there exists an irrational number in between any given real numbers
Now let a, b $\in$ $R$ such that a < b. And let M be the set of irrationals between a and b.
I want to show that M is uncountable. To do this, I think I need to show that there does not exist a bijection from M to the natural numbers.
Can someone give me a hint about how to start to show this?
What's the best way to approach "non-existence" proofs in general?
Thanks
I assume that you know that the interval $(a, b)$ is uncountable and that the set of rational numbers in that interval is countable. So the problem reduces to the following:
If $Y \subseteq X$ are sets such that $X$ is uncountable and $Y$ is countable, then $Z = X \mathrel{\backslash} Y$ is uncountable.
To see this, note that $Z$ is either (a) finite, (b) countably infinite or (c) uncountable. But the union of a finite set (or a countably infinite set) and a countable set is countable so (a) and (b) can't hold. So (c) holds, which was what we wanted.