I don't know if this question has been asked but I couldn't find it. The question is: Suppose $A,B,C$ are sets. Prove that $(A-C)\subseteq (A-B)\cup (B-C)$.
What I have is: Let $x\in (A-B)\cup (B-C)$ then $x\in A$ and $x\notin B$ or $x\in B$ and $x\notin C$. Hence, $x\in (A-C)\implies (A-C)\subseteq (A-B)\cup (B-C)$.
Now my question is, is it acceptable to work from the right to the left as I have just done. My conclusion follows intuition; however, it seems a bit unformal to me. Thanks!
EDIT
For my second attempt, I broke the problem into two, when $x\in B$ and $x\notin B$.
Let $x\in (A-C)$ then $x\in A$ and $x\notin C$. Now, if $x\in B$ then, $x\notin (A-B)$ but $x\in (B-C)$. So, $x\in (A-B)\cup (B-C)$. If $x\notin B$, then $x\in (A-B)$ and $x\notin (B-C)$. So, $x\in (A-B)\cup (B-C)$.
Is my proof valid now?
Yes, that is the form for a proof by cases, and the reasoning in each branch is valid. It may need some polish, but that's the shape of it.
For instance, you need to complete it. "Then in either case any $x\in A\smallsetminus C$ infers that $x\in(A\smallsetminus B)\cup (B\smallsetminus C)$, so therefore $A\smallsetminus C \subseteq (A\smallsetminus B)\cup (B\smallsetminus C)$." or such.