I am trying to prove that $$A \cap (B-C) = (A \cap B) - (A \cap C)$$ holds for any sets $A,B,C$. This is equal to $$A \cap (B-C) = (A \cap B)\cap\color{red}{(A\cap C)'}.$$
I have seen a similar question: Proving : $A \cap (B-C) = (A \cap B) - (A \cap C)$ but I am trying to use another approach, if it is correct.
We pick $$x\in A\cap(B-C)\to x\in A\wedge(x\in B\wedge x\in C')\underbrace{\to}_{\text{Identity}}(x\in A\wedge x\in B)\wedge x\in C'\wedge(x\in A\vee x\in A').$$ Then the first part is the same as $x\in A\cap B$. So we focus on: $x\in C'\wedge(x\in A\vee x\in A')$.
A friend of mine distributed so I ask you if from $$(x\in C'\wedge x\in A)\vee(x\in C'\vee x\in A')\tag{1}$$ we can conclude $$\color{red}{x\in(A\cap C)'}.$$
From $(1)$ we get that $x\in A-C\vee x\in(A\cap C)'$, but I can't proceed further.
I know the following laws:
- Addition: $p\to p\vee q$. EDIT. Since by this property we can finish quickly let me assume that we can't use Addition law.
- Simplification: $p\wedge q\to p$.
Notice that
1. $ x \in C' \rightarrow x \in (A \cap C)' $ and
2. $ x \in A' \rightarrow x \in (A \cap C)' $
What you need follows from these two (try to see how).