Suppose $f$ is decreasing and $\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f(x)=0$.
Then why $$\int_0^\infty(-1)^{[x]}f(x)dx$$ converges? ($[x]$ is the nearest integer function). Any hint?
Suppose $f$ is decreasing and $\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f(x)=0$.
Then why $$\int_0^\infty(-1)^{[x]}f(x)dx$$ converges? ($[x]$ is the nearest integer function). Any hint?
(More than a) Hint:
$$\int_0^\infty (-1)^{[x]}f(x)\,dx = \int_0^{1/2} f(x)\,dx + \sum_{k=1}^\infty (-1)^k \int_{k-1/2}^{k+1/2} f(x)\,dx.$$