If
$$\mu (x,y) = \min\{n\in\mathbb{N} \ | \ x_n \not= y_n \}$$
and
$$d(x,y) = \frac{1}{\mu(x,y)}$$
How can I show that
$$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$
For me it's pretty obvious, but I don't know how to show it mathematically.
If
$$\mu (x,y) = \min\{n\in\mathbb{N} \ | \ x_n \not= y_n \}$$
and
$$d(x,y) = \frac{1}{\mu(x,y)}$$
How can I show that
$$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$
For me it's pretty obvious, but I don't know how to show it mathematically.
Mathematically, it just comes from the fact that :
$$\{n\in\mathbb{N}|x_n\neq y_n\}=\{n\in\mathbb{N}|y_n\neq x_n\}$$
Now to understand why those two sets are equal it just come from the fact that $a\neq b$ if and only if $b\neq a$ which comes from the fact that $a=b$ if and only if $b=a$.