I am wanting to show $x^2+1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q} (i\sqrt{2})$, however, I'm a little stuck.
Here's my attempt: Suppose, for contradiction's sake, that $x^2+1$ is reducible, and factors as $(x-\alpha)(x-\beta)$. We can expand this as $x^2-(\alpha + \beta)x + \alpha\beta$, or in other words, obtain the system:
$$\alpha\beta = 1, \alpha + \beta = 0$$
Is this the right way to go? Is there a contradiction reached, and why?
Let $a+bi\sqrt2$ be a root of $x^2+1$, so $(a+bi\sqrt2)^2 = -1$, i.e. $(a^2-2b^2)+2abi\sqrt2 = -1$.
Equate coefficients and derive a contradiction.