I'm reading a proof which aim to show that: $$\forall x>0:\ln(1+x) > x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^4}{4}$$
the Taylor expansion of $\ln(1+x)$ is (not by chance):
$$x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^5}{5}...$$
Now, the proof claims that the remainder, starting from $\frac{x^5}{5}$ is positive.
But, calculating the remainder using the Lagrange's form gives:
$$\frac{\ln(1+x)^{(6)}(z)}{6!}x^6 < 0$$
Because $$\ln(1+x)^{(6)} = -\frac{120}{(x+1)^6} < 0$$
Where is the mistake?
You can use MVT to do. In fact, let $$ f(x)=\ln(1+x)-(x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^4}{4}). $$ Then, by MVT, there is $c\in(0,x)$ such that $$ f(x)-f(0)=f'(c)x=\frac{c^5}{1+c}x>0 $$ So $f(x)>f(0)$ for $x>0$ or $$\ln(1+x)>x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^4}{4}. $$