Let $a>0$. Consider the sequence $x_{n+1}=\frac{x_n}{1+nx_n^2},~x_1=a,~n\in\mathbb{N}^*$. Study the convergence of $(x_n)_{n\ge1}$ and $(nx_n)_{n\ge1}$.
It was easy for me to prove that $(x_n)_n$ is convergent with the limit equal to $0$, but couldn't find a straightforward approach for $(nx_n)_n$. I first proved that $x_n\le\frac{1}{n}$, or equivalently, $nx_n\le1$, for $n\ge2$, using induction. Then I showed that $(nx_n)_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence: $$\frac{(n+1)x_{n+1}}{nx_n}=\frac{n+1}{n+n^2x_n^2}\ge 1$$ Thus $(nx_n)_n$ is nondecreasing and upper bounded, so it is convergent with positive finite limit $l$.
Now consider $a_n=n$ and $b_n=\frac{1}{x_n}$, so $(b_n)_n$ is a positive, increasing sequence with infinite limit. We have that $$\frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{b_{n+1}-b_n}=\bigg(\frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-\frac{1}{x_n}\bigg)^{-1}=\frac{1}{nx_n}\to\frac{1}{l}$$ By the Stolz–Cesàro theorem, we obtain the identity $l=\frac{1}{l}$, so the only possible value for $l$ is $l=1$.
The hardest part was to prove the convergence of $(nx_n)_n$, which took me a long time. I feel like I am missing an easier solution. Please let me know if there's an elegant proof for $nx_n\to1$. Thanks in advance.
Once you have shown that $nx_n \le 1$ for $n \ge 2$ you can use the general form of the Stolz–Cesàro theorem:
$$ \frac{1}{\liminf_{n \to \infty} nx_n} = \limsup_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{nx_n} = \limsup_{n \to \infty} \frac{1/x_n}{n} \\ \le \limsup_{n \to \infty} \frac{1/x_{n+1}-1/x_n}{(n+1)-n} = \limsup_{n \to \infty} n x_n \le 1 $$ implies that $\liminf_{n \to \infty} n x_n \ge 1$, so that the limit exists and is equal to one.