I am trying to show $p \lor (p \land q ) \equiv p $ using equivalences.
I have tried many replacements (e.g. distributivity and de Morgans) but cannot see a way to simplify the left hand side that reduces to $p$.
Here are is a list of logical equivalences from wikipedia.
I know that this statement is true (via truth tables), but I cannot derive this using equivalences. Ideas appreciated.
It's in the list ... but some texts like to derive it as follows:
$$p \lor (p \land q) \equiv (p \land \top) \lor (p \land q) \equiv p \land (\top \lor q) \equiv p \land \top \equiv p$$