According to my class notes the following are two equivalent definitions of an orthogonal matrix:
- $Q^TQ=I$
- $Q(x)\cdot Q(y)=x\cdot y$
I've been able to show that $1\Rightarrow 2$, yet I do not know how to show $2\Rightarrow 1$. I'd appreciate any help.
$x^\top y=(Qx)^\top(Qy)=x^\top Q^\top Qy$ so $x^\top(Q^\top Q-I)y=0$.
If $e_i$ denote the standard basis vectors, then for any matrix $A$ we have $A_{ij}=e_i^\top Ae_j$. So allowing $x$, $y$ to vary over pairs of the standard basis vectors implies that $Q^\top Q-I=0$, as desired.