I'm stuck in this question. It seems so easy, but I can't see it and at this point I spent too many time on it to be able to look at it with fresh eyes.
For each $n\in N$, consider: $$S_n=\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{n}{k}k^n$$
Show: $$S_n=-nS_{n-1}+n\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{n}{k}k^{n-1},\quad n\ge1$$
Please help me get out of this misery. Appreciate any help.
edit: I've tried Pascal Rule but that didn't get me anywhere. I can't really understand what to do about the "$k^{n-1}$" part. I had a prior exercise where I had to prove a simpler version of this sum by mathematical induction, and it was fairly easy so I'm pretty sure this one is too. I just think I'm not being able to grasp it or probably I'm completely unaware of the principle to apply in this question.
We have for
$$S_n = \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n\choose k} k^n$$
that it is
$$n! [z^n] \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n\choose k} \exp(kz) = n! [z^n] (1-\exp(z))^n.$$
Observe that with $1-\exp(z) = - z - \cdots$ we have $(1-\exp(z))^n = (-1)^n z^n + \cdots$ so that $S_n = n! \times (-1)^n.$
We also have for
$$T_n = \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n\choose k} k^{n-1} \\ = (n-1)! [z^{n-1}] \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n\choose k} \exp(kz) = (n-1)! [z^{n-1}] (1-\exp(z))^n.$$
Again using $(1-\exp(z))^n = (-1)^n z^n + \cdots$ we find that $T_n=0$ as pointed out in the comments.
Thus the claim becomes
$$n ! \times (-1)^n = - n \times (n-1)! \times (-1)^{n-1}$$
and we have the result.