Let $x,y$ be given vectors of dimension $n \times 1$, $A=xy^*$, and $\lambda=y^*x$. I’m trying to demonstrate the following:
- $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.
- If $\lambda \ne 0$, it will be the only nonzero eigenvalue of $A$.
- Explain why $A$ is diagonalizable iff $y^*x\ne 0$.
My approach thusfar:
NTS $\det(A-\lambda I)=0$. I’d really rather not expand $\det(xy^*-y^*xI)$ , but even doing so, I don’t see how doing so would help.
I can verbally logic this: Since A is the product of a pair of vectors, it’s obvious that each column/row will be a scalar multiple of eachother. By proof: Suppose $\exists \mu\ne 0, \mu \ne \lambda$. I don’t know where to go from here.
- Going forwards: $A$ is diagonalizable. Then $\exists \text{nonsingular} S: S^{-1}AS=D$, where $D$ is a diagonal matrix similar to $A$. but if $A$ has only the eigenvalue zero, then $S$ is singular, a contradiction. Going the other direction, if $y^*x\ne 0$, then A has an eigenvalue not equal to zero. Then can I make a statement about the similarity of $A$ to some diagonal matrix?
Suppose $x\neq0$. Let $P$ be an orthonormal matrix (i.e., $ P^*P=I$) such that $ Px=a$, where $a=(a_1,0,\cdots,0)^*$. Let $Py=b=(b_1,b_2,\cdots,b_n)^*$. Then $$ A=xy^*=(P^{-1}a)(P^{-1}b)^*=P^*(ab^*)P $$ which implies that $A$ and $ab^*$ have the same eigenvalues. Note that $$ e_1b=\left[\begin{matrix}a_1b_1&a_1b_2&\cdots&a_1b_n\\ 0&0&\cdots&0\\ \vdots&\vdots&\cdots&\vdots\\ 0&0&\cdots&0\\ \end{matrix}\right] $$ which has eigenvalues $a_1b_1$ and $0$ (the multiplicity $n-1$) and also note that $$ a_1b_1=e_1^*b=(a,b)=(P^{-1}a,P^{-1}y)=(x,y)=x^*y=\lambda. $$ Thus $A$ has eigenvalues $\lambda$ and $0$ (the multiplicity $n-1$). \
Let $x^*y\not=0$, choose an orthonormal matrix $P$ such that $Px=\|x\|e_1$ where $e_1=(1,0,\cdots,0)^*$. Let $$\bar{b}=e_1+kP^*y $$ where $k$ is such that $$ (e_1,\bar{b})=1+k(e_1,Py)=1+\frac{k}{\|x\|}(Px,Py)=1+\frac{k}{\|x\|}x^*y=0$$ namely, $k=-\frac{\|x\|}{x^*y}$. Let $e_2=\frac{\bar{b}}{\|\bar{b}\|}$ and choose $e_3,\cdots,e_n$ such that $e_1,e_2,\cdots,e_n$ are orthonormal. Then $$ PAP^*=Pxy^*P^*=\|x\|e_1(Py)^*=\frac{\|x\|}{k}e_1(\bar{b}-e_1)^*=-\frac{\|x\|}{k}e_1e_1^*,$$ namely $xy^*$ is diagonalizable.