Let $E$ be the open interval $(0, 1)$ with the usual metric topology and $\Bbb R$ be given the usual topology.
Let $\Bbb R^J$ be given the topology of pointwise convergence $T_p$, where the index set $J$ comprises all continuous functions $f : E \to \Bbb R$.
Define a function $T : E \to \Bbb R^J$ by $T(x) = (f(x))_{f∈J}$ . Suppose that the image set $T(E)$ is given the subspace topology as a subspace of $(\Bbb R^J, T_p)$.
I want to show that $T$ is a homeomorphism from $E$ onto $T(E)$ but am not sure what method to employ even hmm.
Is there an explicit map to find? or find continuous maps $f$ and $g$ s.t. $f\circ g=g\circ f= i$ where $i$ is the identity map?
First notice that $T : E \to T(E)$ is continuous. Indeed, let $(x_\lambda)_{\lambda\in\Lambda}$ be a net in $E$ converging to $x \in E$. Then also $f(x_\lambda) \to f(x)$ for every $f \in J$ so $$T(x_\lambda) = (f(x_\lambda))_{f \in J} \to (f(x))_{f \in J} = T(x)$$ in the product topology on $\mathbb{R}^J$.
We can construct the inverse for $T$. The inverse $T^{-1} : T(E) \to E$ is given by the canonical projection $\pi_g : \mathbb{R}^J \to \mathbb{R}$ (with appropriate domain and codomain) where $g \in J$ is the inclusion $g(x) = x, \forall x \in E$.
Indeed, for any $x \in E$ we have $$T^{-1}(T(x)) = T^{-1}((f(x))_{f \in J}) = \pi_g(f(x))_{f \in J} = g(x) = x$$ and for any $T(x) \in T(E)$ with $x \in E$ we then have $$T(T^{-1}(T(x))) = Tx$$ which shows that $T^{-1}$ is indeed the inverse for $T$. It is clearly continuous so we conclude that $T$ is a homeomorphism.